Well, the only answer I can give to that question is: “It depends”. An equivocation? No, not really. When he speaks and acts in accord with the 2,000 yr old traditions handed down from the apostles and imbedded in the perennial magisterium, we are not only in communion with him – we applaud him for it. Now, I should point out that we have already been told by one of his bishops, that we are not in communion with him and, as a result, our priests have been denied faculties and jurisdiction. We have to depend on the doctrine of “ecclesia supplet” or the Church provides in a necessity, But, there is also the supreme law of the Church which is the salvation of souls.
Now, I won’t bore you with long-winded explanations of how we have come to our conclusions but simply ask the question: “Can anyone be told that he or she is not in communion with the Pope, and therefore the Church, because they choose to follow the 2,000 yr old traditions of the Church and, the perennial magisterium as it has existed prior to advent of the “new springtime?” And, when they add that they are only trying to save their souls in the midst of what appears to be widespread apostasy and confusion, are they guilty of the charge of being not in communion and outside the church? I can only say they can make the charge but it won’t hold up before the heavenly courts of Justice.